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be clothed upon with our habitation which is from heaven.” He used this passage to prove we have both a soul and a spirit and both are “the immaterial, invisible part of a person.”
[4]. Revelation 6:9: Souls under the altar See chapter eight, part three. Not one of his four passages has immortal or immortality in them.
• Not one of the four says the soul cannot die.
• Not one of the four says the soul will live after the death of the body.
• Not one of the four says only a "part" of a person, only the no substance "immaterial, invisible part of man," will be in Heaven, and not the whole person.
[2] W. E. VINE ON PNEUMA [SPIRIT]
"Pneuma primarily denotes 'the wind' ['to breathe, blow']; also 'breath.'" W. E. Vine, Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary Of Old and New Testament Words, Page 593.
[Note: While they are men who have learned more than most on Bible words; and we can learn from them, they are still just as human, just as uninspired as other men are, just as subject to err and be wrong, they are still men and hold to such things as Calvinism: He says, "Adam died on the day he disobeyed God. Genesis 2:17, and hence all mankind are born in the same spiritual condition" W. E. Vine, Page 149, New Testament; and like the men who have made translations of the Bible, their views sometime show up in their work, intentional or unintentional; and we must not believe there can be no error in even the best lexicon or translations. They all have some, and no lexicon can be taken as law. McCord says they can be and are sometimes wrong. See "Lexicons Can Be Wrong" McCord, Guardian of Truth, Page 448, 1996]. In the early translations, one Greek word would be translated into many English words [an example-apollumi was translated into eight English words in the King James Version]. A Lexicon wrote later would give all eight English words as the meaning of the one Greek word. Lexicons sometimes define a Greek word more by the way that word is used in the English translations than that by the way it was used in the Greek New Testament, if the English translations translate it 8 or 10 different ways, the lexicons give 8 or 10 different meanings of the one Greek word. The question is, why did the early translations use many words to translate one word? By being able to translate one Greek word into many English words gives them the ability to make any verse not say something they did not want it to say. One word, nehphesh, is rendered with about forty-four different words in the King James Old Testament.
W. E. VINE'S EIGHTEEN WAYS "SPIRIT" IS USED: They are almost the same as his "soul" - see above. Of the eighteen ways Vine says the word "spirit" is used in the Bible, he says sixteen of them are not used with reference to an undying "immaterial, invisible part of man" [A through R]. C and D are the only two of the eighteen different ways he says spirit is used, which he used to prove a person is a two-fold being, and they do not do it. None of the passages he used say anything about an immortality soul.
1. Being not of this earth, God, Christ, Holy Spirit, angels, and other spirits both clean and unclean. [k] The Holy Spirit [m] Unclean spirits, demons. [n] Angels
2. To man. W. E. Vine lists a number of ways that "spirit" applies to man. [a] The wind [b] The breath [c] The immaterial, invisible part of man, Luke 8:55; Acts 7:59; 1 Corinthians 5:5; James 2:26. [d] The disembodied, or unclothed, or naked, 2 Corinthians 5:3, 4; Luke 24:37-39; Hebrews 12:23; 1 Peter 4:6 [e] The resurrection body [f] The sentient element in man, that by which he perceives, reflect, feels, desires [g] Purpose, aim [h] The equivalent of the personal pronoun, used for emphasis and effect [i] Character [j] Moral qualities and activities. Bad, As of bondage, As of a slave, Stupor, and Timidity, Good, As of adoption, liberty as of a son, Faith, Quietness, [l] 'The inward man,' an expression used only of the believer, The new life [o] Divine gift for service [p] By metonymy, those who claim to be depositories of these gifts [q] The significance, as contrasted with the form, of words, or of a rite [r] A vision.
W. E. Vine's gives eight passages in [c] and [d] to prove a person has in immortal part. [1] Luke 8:55; [2] Acts 7:59; [3] 1 Corinthians 5:5; [4] James 2:26; [5] 2 Corinthians 5:3-4; [6] Luke 24:37-39; [7] Hebrews 12:23; [8] 1 Peter 4:6
[1]. HIS FIRST PASSAGE OF HIS EIGHT: Luke 8:55
"AND HER SPIRIT RETURNED."
W. E. Vine says pneuma (soul) is "the natural life of the body," Page 588. It means her life returned. W. E. Vine said, "The spirit may be recognized as the life principle bestowed on man by God, the soul as the resulting life constituted in the individual, the body being the material organism animated by soul and spirit" Page 589. He points out that man as he is now can have no life without the body. After the resurrection the saved will have a new body. The lost are not said to put on a new glorious spiritual body (2 Thessalonians 4:23ff, 1 Corinthians 15:43), or to have immortality, which they must have if they will live forever in torment. Pneuma-spirit is also translated "life" in Revelation 13:15. Vine makes a clear distinction between soul and spirit, but says both are an "immaterial, invisible part of man." Does he think people have two "immaterial, invisible part(s)"? Is this proof that, as McCord says, "Lexicons Can Be Wrong"? W. E. Vine also applied "A building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal, in the heavens" [2 Corinthians 5:3-4] to both the soul and the spirit, but he and many others believe the soul and the spirit are not the same. Do we have two buildings from God for the two "immaterial, invisible parts" of a person, one for the soul, and one for the spirit?
"RECEIVE MY SPIRIT" Acts 7:59
Also see Luke 23:46. If he were asking for his spirit to be received at the resurrection, for this is when we will be received in Heaven, then where is his spirit before the resurrection? For this to prove the spirit is alive from death unto the Resurrection, his spirit would have to be received by God at death. Stephen was asking God to receive him at the judgment. Those who teach we go to Abraham's bosom do not believe we are caught up to Heaven immediately at death so why are they using this to prove what happens to us at death when they do not believe God receives us into Heaven at the time of our death? To make this teach we have an immortal soul, which does not die when the body dies, [1] soul and spirit must be made to be the same thing [2] then contrary to their belief about Abraham's bosom that no one will be in Heaven before the resurrection; they send Stephen to Heaven at his death. Is it because there is no real proof, and scripture must be misused to make it sound as though there is proof, and even misuse them in a way that is contradictory to their own belief. We are not told that Stephen went to Heaven or to Abraham's bosom, but we are clearly told that he "fell asleep" [Acts 7:60]. Maybe they think Stephen is asleep in Heaven or Abraham's bosom. If the real Stephen were the spirit, then what was the "he" that "fell asleep" [Acts 7:60]? The "he" that fell asleep is Stephen, not just an earthly body that will never be in Heaven.
Stephen said, "Lay not this sin to their charge" [Acts 7:60]. The book of Job was inspired, but the speeches of his three friends were not inspired, and much in their speeches is not true. See "Job" By Homer Hailey and "Guide to Bible Study" by J. W. McGarvey. Was Stephen speaking by inspiration, or was Luke only inspired to write what Stephen said, just as the writer of Job was inspired to write the uninspired speeches of Job's friends even when it is said that they spoke not the truth? The question is "what did he ask God to do, and when was he asking God to do it"? "Lord, lay not this sin to their charge?" [Acts 7:60]. This shows he had love even to those who were doing him harm as he should, but what he was asking could not be unless they believed, repented, and were baptized. There is no other way that God could not lay this sin to their charge, or the death of Christ would not have been needed. Therefore, God could not do what Stephen was asking. Stephen was not speaking by inspiration when he said this, for if he were, he would not have been inspired to ask God to do something He could not do. Christ said, "Father, into your hands I commit My spirit: and having said this, He breathed His last" [Luke 23:46]. Isaiah 53:12 in the King James Version "because he has poured out his soul unto death," is "because he poured out Himself to death" in the New American Standard Version, and "because He poured out his life unto death" in the New International Version. Christ gave his life for us, not a no substance something that according to today's theology could not die and was alive in "Hell" in the three days that his body was in the grave. If Christ did not really give up His life, if He were as much alive as He was before He came to earth there was no resurrection. He did not die for us. We are still in our sins with no hope. "For you will not abandon my soul to sheol" [Psalms 16:10]. "Because you will not abandon me to the grave" New International Version is quoted in the New Testament, "Because you will not leave My soul unto hades" [Acts 2:27 and 31]. "In hell" in the King James Version. Christ gave His life for our sins. Sheol is the grave. He died our death and went to the grave and was raised from the grave by the Father. He was not abandon to the grave.
[3]. W. E. VINE'S THIRD PASSAGE OF HIS EIGHT
I Corinthians 5:5
“To deliver such a one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.” The day of the Lord Jesus is the day of His second coming and the resurrection. Is Vine saying salvation will be given to any one after the resurrection?
The context of this passage is disfellowship of the person committing fornication with his father’s wife. “To deliver such a one unto Satan” is to disfellowship him in hope that he will repent; it is not to literally to deliver him to Satan; there would be no way that the Corinthians are any one could literally take any living person to Satan. “For the destruction of the flesh” is the destruction of the sinful desires of this life, not to literally destroy his body. No Christian can literally destroy the body of another living person and this is not what Paul was telling them to do. “That the spirit may be saved in the day of the
[4]. Revelation 6:9: Souls under the altar See chapter eight, part three. Not one of his four passages has immortal or immortality in them.
• Not one of the four says the soul cannot die.
• Not one of the four says the soul will live after the death of the body.
• Not one of the four says only a "part" of a person, only the no substance "immaterial, invisible part of man," will be in Heaven, and not the whole person.
[2] W. E. VINE ON PNEUMA [SPIRIT]
"Pneuma primarily denotes 'the wind' ['to breathe, blow']; also 'breath.'" W. E. Vine, Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary Of Old and New Testament Words, Page 593.
[Note: While they are men who have learned more than most on Bible words; and we can learn from them, they are still just as human, just as uninspired as other men are, just as subject to err and be wrong, they are still men and hold to such things as Calvinism: He says, "Adam died on the day he disobeyed God. Genesis 2:17, and hence all mankind are born in the same spiritual condition" W. E. Vine, Page 149, New Testament; and like the men who have made translations of the Bible, their views sometime show up in their work, intentional or unintentional; and we must not believe there can be no error in even the best lexicon or translations. They all have some, and no lexicon can be taken as law. McCord says they can be and are sometimes wrong. See "Lexicons Can Be Wrong" McCord, Guardian of Truth, Page 448, 1996]. In the early translations, one Greek word would be translated into many English words [an example-apollumi was translated into eight English words in the King James Version]. A Lexicon wrote later would give all eight English words as the meaning of the one Greek word. Lexicons sometimes define a Greek word more by the way that word is used in the English translations than that by the way it was used in the Greek New Testament, if the English translations translate it 8 or 10 different ways, the lexicons give 8 or 10 different meanings of the one Greek word. The question is, why did the early translations use many words to translate one word? By being able to translate one Greek word into many English words gives them the ability to make any verse not say something they did not want it to say. One word, nehphesh, is rendered with about forty-four different words in the King James Old Testament.
W. E. VINE'S EIGHTEEN WAYS "SPIRIT" IS USED: They are almost the same as his "soul" - see above. Of the eighteen ways Vine says the word "spirit" is used in the Bible, he says sixteen of them are not used with reference to an undying "immaterial, invisible part of man" [A through R]. C and D are the only two of the eighteen different ways he says spirit is used, which he used to prove a person is a two-fold being, and they do not do it. None of the passages he used say anything about an immortality soul.
1. Being not of this earth, God, Christ, Holy Spirit, angels, and other spirits both clean and unclean. [k] The Holy Spirit [m] Unclean spirits, demons. [n] Angels
2. To man. W. E. Vine lists a number of ways that "spirit" applies to man. [a] The wind [b] The breath [c] The immaterial, invisible part of man, Luke 8:55; Acts 7:59; 1 Corinthians 5:5; James 2:26. [d] The disembodied, or unclothed, or naked, 2 Corinthians 5:3, 4; Luke 24:37-39; Hebrews 12:23; 1 Peter 4:6 [e] The resurrection body [f] The sentient element in man, that by which he perceives, reflect, feels, desires [g] Purpose, aim [h] The equivalent of the personal pronoun, used for emphasis and effect [i] Character [j] Moral qualities and activities. Bad, As of bondage, As of a slave, Stupor, and Timidity, Good, As of adoption, liberty as of a son, Faith, Quietness, [l] 'The inward man,' an expression used only of the believer, The new life [o] Divine gift for service [p] By metonymy, those who claim to be depositories of these gifts [q] The significance, as contrasted with the form, of words, or of a rite [r] A vision.
W. E. Vine's gives eight passages in [c] and [d] to prove a person has in immortal part. [1] Luke 8:55; [2] Acts 7:59; [3] 1 Corinthians 5:5; [4] James 2:26; [5] 2 Corinthians 5:3-4; [6] Luke 24:37-39; [7] Hebrews 12:23; [8] 1 Peter 4:6
[1]. HIS FIRST PASSAGE OF HIS EIGHT: Luke 8:55
"AND HER SPIRIT RETURNED."
W. E. Vine says pneuma (soul) is "the natural life of the body," Page 588. It means her life returned. W. E. Vine said, "The spirit may be recognized as the life principle bestowed on man by God, the soul as the resulting life constituted in the individual, the body being the material organism animated by soul and spirit" Page 589. He points out that man as he is now can have no life without the body. After the resurrection the saved will have a new body. The lost are not said to put on a new glorious spiritual body (2 Thessalonians 4:23ff, 1 Corinthians 15:43), or to have immortality, which they must have if they will live forever in torment. Pneuma-spirit is also translated "life" in Revelation 13:15. Vine makes a clear distinction between soul and spirit, but says both are an "immaterial, invisible part of man." Does he think people have two "immaterial, invisible part(s)"? Is this proof that, as McCord says, "Lexicons Can Be Wrong"? W. E. Vine also applied "A building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal, in the heavens" [2 Corinthians 5:3-4] to both the soul and the spirit, but he and many others believe the soul and the spirit are not the same. Do we have two buildings from God for the two "immaterial, invisible parts" of a person, one for the soul, and one for the spirit?
"RECEIVE MY SPIRIT" Acts 7:59
Also see Luke 23:46. If he were asking for his spirit to be received at the resurrection, for this is when we will be received in Heaven, then where is his spirit before the resurrection? For this to prove the spirit is alive from death unto the Resurrection, his spirit would have to be received by God at death. Stephen was asking God to receive him at the judgment. Those who teach we go to Abraham's bosom do not believe we are caught up to Heaven immediately at death so why are they using this to prove what happens to us at death when they do not believe God receives us into Heaven at the time of our death? To make this teach we have an immortal soul, which does not die when the body dies, [1] soul and spirit must be made to be the same thing [2] then contrary to their belief about Abraham's bosom that no one will be in Heaven before the resurrection; they send Stephen to Heaven at his death. Is it because there is no real proof, and scripture must be misused to make it sound as though there is proof, and even misuse them in a way that is contradictory to their own belief. We are not told that Stephen went to Heaven or to Abraham's bosom, but we are clearly told that he "fell asleep" [Acts 7:60]. Maybe they think Stephen is asleep in Heaven or Abraham's bosom. If the real Stephen were the spirit, then what was the "he" that "fell asleep" [Acts 7:60]? The "he" that fell asleep is Stephen, not just an earthly body that will never be in Heaven.
Stephen said, "Lay not this sin to their charge" [Acts 7:60]. The book of Job was inspired, but the speeches of his three friends were not inspired, and much in their speeches is not true. See "Job" By Homer Hailey and "Guide to Bible Study" by J. W. McGarvey. Was Stephen speaking by inspiration, or was Luke only inspired to write what Stephen said, just as the writer of Job was inspired to write the uninspired speeches of Job's friends even when it is said that they spoke not the truth? The question is "what did he ask God to do, and when was he asking God to do it"? "Lord, lay not this sin to their charge?" [Acts 7:60]. This shows he had love even to those who were doing him harm as he should, but what he was asking could not be unless they believed, repented, and were baptized. There is no other way that God could not lay this sin to their charge, or the death of Christ would not have been needed. Therefore, God could not do what Stephen was asking. Stephen was not speaking by inspiration when he said this, for if he were, he would not have been inspired to ask God to do something He could not do. Christ said, "Father, into your hands I commit My spirit: and having said this, He breathed His last" [Luke 23:46]. Isaiah 53:12 in the King James Version "because he has poured out his soul unto death," is "because he poured out Himself to death" in the New American Standard Version, and "because He poured out his life unto death" in the New International Version. Christ gave his life for us, not a no substance something that according to today's theology could not die and was alive in "Hell" in the three days that his body was in the grave. If Christ did not really give up His life, if He were as much alive as He was before He came to earth there was no resurrection. He did not die for us. We are still in our sins with no hope. "For you will not abandon my soul to sheol" [Psalms 16:10]. "Because you will not abandon me to the grave" New International Version is quoted in the New Testament, "Because you will not leave My soul unto hades" [Acts 2:27 and 31]. "In hell" in the King James Version. Christ gave His life for our sins. Sheol is the grave. He died our death and went to the grave and was raised from the grave by the Father. He was not abandon to the grave.
[3]. W. E. VINE'S THIRD PASSAGE OF HIS EIGHT
I Corinthians 5:5
“To deliver such a one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.” The day of the Lord Jesus is the day of His second coming and the resurrection. Is Vine saying salvation will be given to any one after the resurrection?
The context of this passage is disfellowship of the person committing fornication with his father’s wife. “To deliver such a one unto Satan” is to disfellowship him in hope that he will repent; it is not to literally to deliver him to Satan; there would be no way that the Corinthians are any one could literally take any living person to Satan. “For the destruction of the flesh” is the destruction of the sinful desires of this life, not to literally destroy his body. No Christian can literally destroy the body of another living person and this is not what Paul was telling them to do. “That the spirit may be saved in the day of the
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